MCQ Question of TU IT Adhkhirit /IT Offcier 2082

1. What is the main purpose of a firewall in information security?
   A) To encrypt data that will be transmitted
   B) To protect against malware infections
   C) To control network traffic and block unauthorized access
   D) To store sensitive information securely
   Answer: C) To control network traffic and block unauthorized access
   Explanation: A firewall monitors and controls network traffic based on security rules, preventing unauthorized access.

2. What is the first step in knowledge management strategy?
   A) Training all the staffs
   B) Implementing knowledge management software
   C) Identifying and assessing knowledge assets
   D) Archiving the knowledge and using for all the staffs
   Answer: C) Identifying and assessing knowledge assets
   Explanation: Identifying and assessing knowledge assets is the initial step to understand what knowledge exists and how it can be utilized.

3. In reinforcement learning, what is the primary purpose of the "exploration Vs exploitation" trade-off?
   A) To balance between trying new actions and using known rewarding actions
   B) To reduce neural network overfitting
   C) To optimize GPU utilization
   D) To prevent gradient vanishing in RNNs
   Answer: A) To balance between trying new actions and using known rewarding actions
   Explanation: This trade-off balances discovering new actions (exploration) with leveraging known high-reward actions (exploitation).

4. What distinguishes edge computing from cloud computing?
   A) Centralized data processing
   B) Processing data near the source
   C) Higher latency
   D) Dependency on internet connectivity
   Answer: B) Processing data near the source
   Explanation: Edge computing processes data closer to its source, reducing latency compared to cloud computing’s centralized approach.

5. Which component is essential for IoT devices to communicate?
   A) High-resolution display
   B) Sensors and connectivity modules
   C) Powerful processors
   D) Large storage capacity
   Answer: B) Sensors and connectivity modules
   Explanation: IoT devices need sensors to collect data and connectivity modules (e.g., Wi-Fi, Bluetooth) to communicate.

6. What is the primary application of convolutional neural networks (CNNs) in computer vision?
   A) Image classification and object detection
   B) Image verification and clustering
   C) Object verification and clustering
   D) Clustering
   Answer: A) Image classification and object detection
   Explanation: CNNs excel in processing grid-like data (e.g., images) for tasks like image classification and object detection.

7. What is a key characteristic of blockchain technology?
   A) Centralized data storage
   B) Distributed and immutable ledger
   C) Requires constant internet connection
   D) Only works with cryptocurrencies
   Answer: B) Distributed and immutable ledger
   Explanation: Blockchain uses a decentralized, immutable ledger for secure and transparent record-keeping.

8. Which constitutional Article guarantees the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right in Nepal?
   A) 16
   B) 28
   C) 32
   D) 42
   Answer: B) 28
   Explanation: Article 28 of Nepal’s Constitution guarantees the Right to Privacy.

9. Under the Copyright Act, 2059, what is the default duration of copyright protection?
   A) 25 years after the author's death
   B) 50 years after publication
   C) Life of the author + 70 years
   D) Life of the author + 50 years
   Answer: D) Life of the author + 50 years
   Explanation: Nepal’s Copyright Act, 2059, grants protection for the author’s lifetime plus 50 years.

10. What is the main goal of the Digital Nepal Framework, 2076?
    A) To establish more internet cafes
    B) To transform Nepal into a digitally empowered society and knowledge-based economy
    C) To increase mobile phone usage
    D) To promote social media usage
    Answer: B) To transform Nepal into a digitally empowered society and knowledge-based economy
    Explanation: The framework aims to leverage ICT for digital empowerment and economic growth.

11. Which institution is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the ICT Policy, 2072?
    A) Ministry of Communication and Information Technology
    B) Ministry of Education, Science and Technology
    C) Ministry of Finance
    D) Nepal Telecommunications Authority
    Answer: A) Ministry of Communication and Information Technology
    Explanation: This ministry oversees ICT policy implementation in Nepal.

12. When was the IBM 1401 mainframe computer first brought to Nepal?
    A) 2027 BS
    B) 2028 BS
    C) 2029 BS
    D) 2030 BS
    Answer: B) 2028 BS
    Explanation: The IBM 1401 was introduced in 2028 BS (1971 AD) for census data processing.

13. Which body regulates ISP licenses in Nepal?
    A) Nepal Telecommunications Authority
    B) Ministry of Communication and Information Technology
    C) Department of Information Technology
    D) Nepal Rastra Bank
    Answer: A) Nepal Telecommunications Authority
    Explanation: The Nepal Telecommunications Authority regulates ISP licenses.

14. Which agency oversees e-bidding in Nepal?
    A) Nepal Rastra Bank
    B) Public Procurement Monitoring Office
    C) Department of Information Technology
    D) Nepal Telecommunications Authority
    Answer: B) Public Procurement Monitoring Office
    Explanation: This office oversees e-bidding processes in Nepal.

15. Which Section of the Electronic Transactions Act criminalizes unauthorized access to computer systems?
    A) 43
    B) 44
    C) 45
    D) 47
    Answer: B) 44
    Explanation: Section 44 criminalizes unauthorized access under Nepal’s Electronic Transactions Act.

16. Which objective is not true for University Grants Commission, Nepal?
    A) Advise the Government of Nepal to establish new universities
    B) Disburse grants to universities
    C) Determine and maintain the standards of higher education
    D) Compete with the universities in Nepal
    Answer: D) Compete with the universities in Nepal
    Explanation: The UGC supports universities but does not compete with them.

17. Which of the following programs was launched between UGC and TU to promote higher education quality with World Bank support?
    A) PHEP
    B) SEP
    C) NEHEP
    D) HEQEP
    Answer: C) NEHEP
    Explanation: The National Higher Education Program (NEHEP) was launched with World Bank support.

18. Which was the first technical campus established under TU?
    A) Institute of Engineering
    B) Institute of Medicine
    C) Institute of Agriculture and Animal Science
    D) Institute of Forestry
    Answer: A) Institute of Engineering
    Explanation: The Institute of Engineering was TU’s first technical campus.

19. Which ministry primarily coordinates with UGC for higher education policies in Nepal?
    A) Ministry of Education, Science and Technology
    B) Ministry of Finance
    C) Ministry of Communication and Information Technology
    D) Ministry of Federal Affairs and General Administration
    Answer: A) Ministry of Education, Science and Technology
    Explanation: This ministry coordinates higher education policies with UGC.

20. Which aspect is typically covered under TU Rules and Regulations for teacher service?
    A) Political party membership requirements
    B) Promotion criteria, leave policies, and disciplinary procedures
    C) Personal lifestyle choices
    D) Family background verification
    Answer: B) Promotion criteria, leave policies, and disciplinary procedures
    Explanation: These aspects are covered under TU’s teacher service regulations.

21. What is a major financial challenge faced by TU?
    A) Surplus funding
    B) Over-reliance on student fees
    C) Excessive research grants
    D) International partnerships
    Answer: B) Over-reliance on student fees
    Explanation: TU faces financial challenges due to heavy dependence on student fees.

22. What is the main function of TU Executive Council?
    A) Curriculum development
    B) Research promotions only
    C) Student discipline
    D) Execution of senate decisions, appointment of officials, grants, and affiliations
    Answer: D) Execution of senate decisions, appointment of officials, grants, and affiliations
    Explanation: The Executive Council handles these administrative and governance tasks.

23. Which financial model does UGC use to fund universities?
    A) Block grant system
    B) Student fee-based
    C) Corporate sponsorship
    D) Foreign aid-dependent
    Answer: A) Block grant system
    Explanation: UGC uses block grants to fund universities.

24. Which TU entity handles faculty requirements?
    A) Executive Council
    B) Service Commission
    C) Academic Council
    D) Examination Control Division
    Answer: B) Service Commission
    Explanation: The Service Commission manages faculty recruitment and promotions.

25. Who chairs the TU Executive Council?
    A) Prime Minister of Nepal
    B) Minister of Education, Science and Technology
    C) TU Vice-Chancellor
    D) UGC Chairman
    Answer: C) TU Vice-Chancellor
    Explanation: The TU Vice-Chancellor chairs the Executive Council.

26. CPU registers are used for...
    A) Permanent data storage
    B) Temporary data storage during processing
    C) Installing software
    D) Displaying output to the screen
    Answer: B) Temporary data storage during processing
    Explanation: Registers hold data temporarily during CPU processing.

27. What is the main function of cache memory?
    A) Store user files
    B) Connect peripherals
    C) Store system BIOS
    D) Provide high-speed data access to CPU
    Answer: D) Provide high-speed data access to CPU
    Explanation: Cache memory speeds up CPU data access by storing frequently used data.

28. Which of the following is an input device?
    A) Speaker
    B) Microphone
    C) Scanner
    D) Monitor
    Answer: B) Microphone, C) Scanner
    Explanation: Both microphones and scanners are input devices, though the question implies a single choice. Both are valid.

29. Which of the following best describes application software?
    A) Controls the overall operation of the computer
    B) Manages memory and processes
    C) Helps the user perform specific tasks
    D) Maintains the power supply of the computer
    Answer: C) Helps the user perform specific tasks
    Explanation: Application software is designed for specific user tasks, like word processing.

30. Which of the following is not a type of computer virus?
    A) Trojan Horse
    B) Assembler
    C) Worm
    D) Boot sector virus
    Answer: B) Assembler
    Explanation: An assembler is a program, not a virus; others are types of malware.

31. Which Excel feature should be used when a manager wants to analyze monthly sales totals across multiple branches with dynamic data grouping and filtering?
    A) Data Verification
    B) Conditional Formatting
    C) VLOOKUP
    D) Pivot Table
    Answer: D) Pivot Table
    Explanation: Pivot Tables enable dynamic data analysis and grouping in Excel.

32. If a printer failed to print documents even if it's powered and connected properly, what needs to be done first?
    A) Restart the computer operating system
    B) Replace the cartridge
    C) Verify the printer status in operating system's print queue
    D) Uninstall and install the printer driver
    Answer: C) Verify the printer status in operating system's print queue
    Explanation: Checking the print queue identifies issues like paused jobs or connectivity problems.

33. Why is Unicode considered essential for official Nepali document processing over legacy fonts like Preeti, especially in public service sectors?
    A) Unicode enables cross-platform support and standard compatibility
    B) Legacy fonts require no software to run
    C) Unicode fonts are easier to memorize
    D) Preeti fonts are more attractive visually
    Answer: A) Unicode enables cross-platform support and standard compatibility
    Explanation: Unicode ensures compatibility and standardization across platforms, unlike Preeti.

34. Which feature of procedural programming ensures code reusability without affecting global states?
    A) Pass-by-reference function calls
    B) Pass-by-value function calls
    C) Global variable referencing
    D) Virtual functions
    Answer: B) Pass-by-value function calls
    Explanation: Pass-by-value creates copies, preventing changes to global variables, enhancing reusability.

35. What will be the output of the following code?

    #include<stdio.h>
    int mystery (int n) {
        if (n <= 0)
            return 0;
        else
            return n + mystery (n - 2);
    }
    int main () {
        int result = mystery (6);
        printf("%d\n", result);
        return 0;
    }
    

    A) 8
    B) 10
    C) 12
    D) 14
    Answer: C) 12
    Explanation: mystery(6) = 6 + mystery(4) = 6 + (4 + mystery(2)) = 6 + 4 + (2 + mystery(0)) = 6 + 4 + 2 + 0 = 12.

36. Which of the following is not a valid data type in C?
    A) string
    B) short int
    C) long int
    D) unsigned int
    Answer: A) string
    Explanation: C does not have a built-in string type; strings are implemented as char arrays.

37. Which of the following is a unary operator in C?
    A) +
    B) *
    C) ++
    D) &&
    Answer: C) ++
    Explanation: The increment operator (++) operates on a single operand, making it unary.

38. What will happen if the condition in an if-else statement is false?
    A) The if block executes
    B) The else block executes
    C) The program terminates
    D) Nothing happens
    Answer: B) The else block executes
    Explanation: If the condition is false, the else block (if present) executes.

39. Which access specifier allows members of a class to be accessed only within the class?
    A) Private
    B) Static
    C) Protected
    D) Public
    Answer: A) Private
    Explanation: Private restricts access to within the class.

40. Which of the following best describes objects and class in OOP?
    A) Class is a physical entity stored in memory and objects are abstract ideas derived from it
    B) Class defines the structure and behavior while the objects are concrete instances that hold specific data based on that definition
    C) Objects are blueprints that define properties and behaviors while classes are instances created at run time
    D) Class and objects are identical concepts
    Answer: B) Class defines the structure and behavior while the objects are concrete instances that hold specific data based on that definition
    Explanation: A class is a blueprint, and objects are instances with specific data.

41. What is the primary advantage of function overloading?
    A) Code readability and reusability
    B) Reduced program size
    C) Faster execution
    D) Prevent errors
    Answer: A) Code readability and reusability
    Explanation: Function overloading allows multiple functions with the same name, improving readability and reusability.

42. What is encapsulation in OOP?
    A) Hiding internal details of an object
    B) Deriving new classes from existing classes
    C) Using the same method name with different implementation
    D) Creating multiple objects
    Answer: A) Hiding internal details of an object
    Explanation: Encapsulation hides internal details, exposing only necessary interfaces.

43. How is exception handling done in object-oriented programming?
    A) Exceptions are ignored because objects automatically fix errors
    B) Exception handling is not required in OOP as it has built-in error prevention mechanisms
    C) By using try, catch, and finally blocks to handle run-time errors
    D) From the error code returned by the functions
    Answer: C) By using try, catch, and finally blocks to handle run-time errors
    Explanation: OOP uses try, catch, and finally for handling run-time errors.

44. Which data structure is used in function call management?
    A) Queue
    B) Stack
    C) Linked list
    D) Tree
    Answer: B) Stack
    Explanation: A stack manages function calls, storing return addresses and local variables.

45. In a doubly linked list, what is the worst-case time complexity to delete the last node given only its reference?
    A) O(1)
    B) O(n)
    C) O(log n)
    D) O(n²)
    Answer: A) O(1)
    Explanation: In a doubly linked list, deleting the last node with its reference is O(1) due to direct pointer updates.

46. Which abstract data type is typically used to implement recursion?
    A) Queue
    B) Stack
    C) Linked List
    D) Array
    Answer: B) Stack
    Explanation: Recursion uses a stack to manage function calls and return addresses.

47. Which of the following is not a divide and conquer algorithm?
    A) Merge Sort
    B) Binary Search
    C) Quick Sort
    D) Bubble Sort
    Answer: D) Bubble Sort
    Explanation: Bubble Sort is iterative, not divide-and-conquer.

48. What is the average-case time complexity of the Quick Sort algorithm?
    A) O(nlogn)
    B) O(logn)
    C) O(n)
    D) O(n²)
    Answer: A) O(nlogn)
    Explanation: Quick Sort’s average-case complexity is O(n log n) due to its divide-and-conquer approach.

49. The main objective of using hashing in data structure is...
    A) To keep the elements in sorted order
    B) To allow direct access to elements reducing search time
    C) To store data sequentially
    D) To compress data storage
    Answer: B) To allow direct access to elements reducing search time
    Explanation: Hashing enables fast data retrieval via key-based indexing.

50. Which searching algorithm is best for small or unsorted datasets?
    A) Binary Search
    B) Linear search
    C) Jump search
    D) Interpolation search
    Answer: B) Linear search
    Explanation: Linear search is simple and effective for small or unsorted datasets.

51. Which graph algorithm uses a greedy approach but does not guarantee optimality for all inputs?
    A) Prim's MST
    B) Kruskal's MST
    C) Dijkstra's Shortest Path
    D) Bellman-Ford
    Answer: C) Dijkstra's Shortest Path
    Explanation: Dijkstra’s algorithm is greedy but fails with negative edge weights.

52. In a microprocessor-based system, which statement about the bus system is true?
    A) The address bus is usually unidirectional, while the data bus can be bidirectional
    B) The data bus is unidirectional and the address bus is bidirectional
    C) Both address and data buses are always unidirectional
    D) The control bus only carries clock signals
    Answer: A) The address bus is usually unidirectional, while the data bus can be bidirectional
    Explanation: The address bus carries addresses unidirectionally, while the data bus is bidirectional.

53. Which of the following is true in a microprocessor regarding the instruction set?
    A) It is a collection of registers used by CPU
    B) It is a memory area where all programs are stored
    C) It is a set of all operations that a processor can execute as defined by its architecture
    D) It is the set of commands used only by high-level programming languages
    Answer: C) It is a set of all operations that a processor can execute as defined by its architecture
    Explanation: The instruction set defines processor operations.

54. What is the function of the INTR interrupt?
    A) Maskable interrupt with highest priority
    B) Non-maskable interrupt
    C) General-purpose interrupt with lowest priority
    D) Software interrupt
    Answer: C) General-purpose interrupt with lowest priority
    Explanation: INTR is a maskable, low-priority interrupt in microprocessors.

55. In the 8085 microprocessor, which register holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched?
    A) Accumulator
    B) Program Counter
    C) Instruction Register
    D) Stack Pointer
    Answer: B) Program Counter
    Explanation: The Program Counter holds the address of the next instruction.

56. Which register pair is used for multiplication/division in 8086?
    A) AX and BX
    B) AX and DX
    C) BX and CX
    D) SI and DI
    Answer: B) AX and DX
    Explanation: AX and DX are used for multiplication/division in 8086.

57. Which memory type is the fastest and smallest in a typical computer system?
    A) Main Memory (RAM)
    B) Cache Memory
    C) Secondary Storage
    D) Register
    Answer: D) Register
    Explanation: Registers are the fastest and smallest memory type in a computer.

58. What happens in an inclusive cache hierarchy when a line is evicted from L1 but not L3?
    A) L3 keeps the data
    B) L3 invalidates it
    C) CPU fault
    D) Data error
    Answer: A) L3 keeps the data
    Explanation: In an inclusive hierarchy, L3 retains data evicted from L1.

59. Which architecture is more suited for compiler optimization and parallelism?
    A) CISC
    B) RISC
    C) VLIW
    D) DISC
    Answer: B) RISC
    Explanation: RISC’s simple instructions aid compiler optimization and parallelism.

60. What triggers a DMA request (DRQ)?
    A) CPU interrupt
    B) Peripheral device ready for transfer
    C) Cache miss
    D) Page fault
    Answer: B) Peripheral device ready for transfer
    Explanation: DMA requests are triggered by peripherals ready for data transfer.

61. What does a multicore processor mean?
    A) Multiple ALUs in one core
    B) Multiple clock speeds
    C) Multiple cache levels
    D) Multiple CPUs on one chip
    Answer: D) Multiple CPUs on one chip
    Explanation: A multicore processor has multiple CPU cores on a single chip.

62. An operating system that supports multiple programs running at once is called...
    A) Multi-user OS
    B) Time-sharing OS
    C) Multiprocessing OS
    D) Multitasking OS
    Answer: D) Multitasking OS
    Explanation: A multitasking OS supports running multiple programs simultaneously.

63. Why is mutual exclusion important in concurrent programming?
    A) It prevents deadlock by scheduling all processes sequentially
    B) It ensures that only one process can access a critical section at a time, avoiding data inconsistency
    C) It allows multiple processes to access the same critical section simultaneously
    D) It removes the need for inter-process communication
    Answer: B) It ensures that only one process can access a critical section at a time, avoiding data inconsistency
    Explanation: Mutual exclusion prevents data inconsistency in concurrent access.

64. Which of the following scheduling algorithms is most prone to starvation?
    A) First Come First Serve
    B) Priority Scheduling
    C) Round Robin
    D) Multi Level Queue Scheduling
    Answer: B) Priority Scheduling
    Explanation: Low-priority processes may starve in priority scheduling if higher-priority tasks dominate.

65. What causes a page fault in demand paging?
    A) Accessing a page not in RAM
    B) Writing to a read-only page
    C) Dereferencing a null pointer
    D) Exceeding the page table size
    Answer: A) Accessing a page not in RAM
    Explanation: A page fault occurs when a requested page is not in RAM.

66. Which file system structure maintains a list of pointers that points to data blocks belonging to a file?
    A) Linked Allocation
    B) FAT Allocation
    C) Indexed Allocation
    D) Contiguous Allocation
    Answer: C) Indexed Allocation
    Explanation: Indexed allocation uses an index block to point to a file’s data blocks.

67. Which I/O technique uses the CPU to constantly check device status?
    A) DMA
    B) Interrupt
    C) Buffering
    D) Polling
    Answer: D) Polling
    Explanation: Polling involves the CPU repeatedly checking device status.

68. Which of the following is not a method of user authentication in Operating System?
    A) Memory segmentation
    B) Token-based authentication
    C) Biometrics
    D) Password
    Answer: A) Memory segmentation
    Explanation: Memory segmentation is a memory management technique, not an authentication method.

69. What is the shell in Linux?
    A) A graphical interface
    B) A command interpreter
    C) A hardware component
    D) A networking protocol
    Answer: B) A command interpreter
    Explanation: The Linux shell interprets user commands for the OS.

70. What does a diamond in an E-R diagram represent?
    A) Entities
    B) Attributes
    C) Relationships
    D) Foreign Keys
    Answer: C) Relationships
    Explanation: A diamond in an E-R diagram denotes relationships between entities.

71. Which relational algebra operation removes duplicate tuples?
    A) Selection (σ)
    B) Union (U)
    C) Projection (π)
    D) Rename (p)
    Answer: C) Projection (π)
    Explanation: Projection selects attributes and eliminates duplicate tuples.

72. What is a primary key in a relational model?
    A) A key that can be left blank
    B) A key used to encrypt data
    C) A unique identifier for tuples in a table
    D) A foreign key from another table
    Answer: C) A unique identifier for tuples in a table
    Explanation: A primary key uniquely identifies each tuple in a table.

73. Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies?
    A) 1NF
    B) 2NF
    C) 3NF
    D) BCNF
    Answer: C) 3NF
    Explanation: Third Normal Form (3NF) removes transitive dependencies.

74. Which of the following ensures that once a transaction is committed, it remains so, even in case of a crash?
    A) Atomicity
    B) Consistency
    C) Isolation
    D) Durability
    Answer: D) Durability
    Explanation: Durability ensures committed transactions persist despite crashes.

75. What is the default port for Oracle Database listeners?
    A) 1433
    B) 3306
    C) 1521
    D) 8080
    Answer: C) 1521
    Explanation: Oracle Database listeners use port 1521 by default.

76. What is the first step in query processing by a DBMS?
    A) Execution of the query
    B) Optimization of the query
    C) Parsing and translation of the query into an internal form
    D) Displaying the query results
    Answer: C) Parsing and translation of the query into an internal form
    Explanation: Query processing begins with parsing and translating the query.

77. What is the main challenge of horizontal fragmentation in a distributed database?
    A) Joins across fragments require network transfer
    B) Schema changes are difficult to coordinate
    C) Indexes cannot be partitioned
    D) Transactions auto-commit
    Answer: A) Joins across fragments require network transfer
    Explanation: Joins across distributed fragments require costly network transfers.

78. Which of the following is not a layer in the TCP/IP model?
    A) Network
    B) Transport
    C) Presentation
    D) Application
    Answer: C) Presentation
    Explanation: The TCP/IP model lacks a Presentation layer, unlike the OSI model.

79. Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer?
    A) Router
    B) Switch
    C) Hub
    D) Firewall
    Answer: C) Hub
    Explanation: Hubs operate at the physical layer, transmitting raw bits.

80. How does CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) differ from CSMA/CD?
    A) CSMA/CA detects collisions after they occur, CSMA/CD avoids collisions before they occur
    B) CSMA/CA avoids collisions by using acknowledgements and waiting, while CSMA/CD detects and handles collisions after they happen
    C) CSMA/CA is used only for wired networks, CSMA/CD for wireless
    D) CSMA/CA does not use carrier sensing
    Answer: B) CSMA/CA avoids collisions by using acknowledgements and waiting, while CSMA/CD detects and handles collisions after they happen
    Explanation: CSMA/CA (wireless) avoids collisions, while CSMA/CD (wired) detects them.

81. Which protocol provides secure file transfer but doesn't work with IPv6 due to its packet structure?
    A) FTP
    B) TFTP
    C) SFTP
    D) SCP
    Answer: B) TFTP
    Explanation: TFTP lacks IPv6 support due to its packet structure, unlike secure protocols like SFTP.

82. Which of the following is a valid subnet ID for 192.168.1.32/27?
    A) 192.168.1.0
    B) 192.168.1.32
    C) 192.168.1.64
    D) 192.168.1.96
    Answer: B) 192.168.1.32
    Explanation: A /27 subnet has 32 addresses; 192.168.1.32 is a valid subnet ID.

83. Which DNS record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address?
    A) NS
    B) MX
    C) A
    D) CNAME
    Answer: C) A
    Explanation: The A record maps a domain to an IPv4 address.

84. Which of the following best describes a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
    A) A high-speed network that provides block-level access to storage devices
    B) A local hard drive inside a server
    C) A type of RAID configuration
    D) A backup solution using cloud storage
    Answer: A) A high-speed network that provides block-level access to storage devices
    Explanation: A SAN provides block-level storage access over a high-speed network.

85. __________ is an example of a passive attack.
    A) Man-in-the-middle attack
    B) Eavesdropping
    C) Denial of Service (DoS) attack
    D) Data modification
    Answer: B) Eavesdropping
    Explanation: Eavesdropping is a passive attack involving interception without alteration.

86. What is the key characteristic of symmetric key cryptography?
    A) Different keys for encryption and decryption
    B) Same key used for both encryption and decryption
    C) Uses public key infrastructure
    D) Uses hash functions
    Answer: B) Same key used for both encryption and decryption
    Explanation: Symmetric cryptography uses a single key for both operations.

87. Which key does the receiver use to verify a digital signature?
    A) Sender's private key
    B) Receiver's public key
    C) Receiver's private key
    D) Sender's public key
    Answer: D) Sender's public key
    Explanation: The sender’s public key verifies a digital signature.

88. What is a VPN tunnel?
    A) A physical cable
    B) An encrypted connection that encapsulates data packets for secure transmission
    C) A data compression method
    D) A type of firewall
    Answer: B) An encrypted connection that encapsulates data packets for secure transmission
    Explanation: A VPN tunnel ensures secure data transmission via encryption.

89. Which tool would help diagnose a DNS resolution issue?
    A) nslookup
    B) ping
    C) tracert
    D) netstat
    Answer: A) nslookup
    Explanation: nslookup queries DNS servers to diagnose resolution issues.

90. What is the primary goal of Software Engineering?
    A) To write code as quickly as possible
    B) To systematically develop high-quality software within budget and time constraints
    C) To use the latest programming languages
    D) To minimize the number of programmers needed
    Answer: B) To systematically develop high-quality software within budget and time constraints
    Explanation: Software engineering focuses on quality, budget, and time efficiency.

91. Which software process model is known for its sequential, linear flow with distinct phases like requirements, design, implementation, testing, and deployment?
    A) Agile
    B) RAD
    C) Spiral
    D) Waterfall
    Answer: D) Waterfall
    Explanation: The Waterfall model follows a linear, sequential process.

92. Which of the following is not a type of software requirement?
    A) Functional requirements
    B) Non-functional requirements
    C) Business requirements
    D) Design requirements
    Answer: D) Design requirements
    Explanation: Design requirements are part of the design phase, not a type of software requirement.

93. In Critical Path Method (CPM) analysis, what does a "slack time" of zero indicate?
    A) The task can be delayed without affecting the project deadline
    B) The task is not critical
    C) The task is on the critical path
    D) The task has no dependencies
    Answer: C) The task is on the critical path
    Explanation: Zero slack indicates a task is critical and cannot be delayed.

94. Which metric is used for software size estimation in Function Point Analysis (FPA)?
    A) Lines of Code
    B) Cyclomatic complexity
    C) Number of user inputs/outputs
    D) Halstead's difficulty measure
    Answer: C) Number of user inputs/outputs
    Explanation: FPA estimates size based on user inputs, outputs, and other factors.

95. What is the primary concern of architectural design?
    A) Defining the overall structure and organization of the system
    B) Designing user interfaces
    C) Writing detailed code
    D) Testing individual components
    Answer: A) Defining the overall structure and organization of the system
    Explanation: Architectural design focuses on the system’s structure and components.

96. Which of the following is not a black box testing technique?
    A) Boundary value testing
    B) Cause-effect (Decision Table) testing
    C) Combinatorial testing
    D) Basic condition testing
    Answer: D) Basic condition testing
    Explanation: Basic condition testing is a white-box technique, unlike the others.

97. What do you mean by "Defect Density" in quality management of software?
    A) The number of defects found per module
    B) The number of defects found per line of code
    C) The number of defects found per functional requirements
    D) The number of defects found per technical requirements
    Answer: B) The number of defects found per line of code
    Explanation: Defect density is typically defects per thousand lines of code.

98. In HTML5, which semantic element should be used to define self-contained content that could be distributed independently (e.g., a blog post)?
    A) <section>
    B) <article>
    C) <div>
    D) <aside>
    Answer: B) <article>
    Explanation: The <article> element is for self-contained, distributable content like blog posts.

99. In client-server architecture, where is business logic executed in a "thin client" model?
    A) Server-side only
    B) Client-side only
    C) Both client and server
    D) Middleware
    Answer: A) Server-side only
    Explanation: In a thin client model, business logic is handled on the server.

100. What is the primary purpose of JavaScript in web development?
     A) Server-side database management
     B) Client-side interactivity and dynamic content
     C) Web server configuration
     D) Network security
     Answer: B) Client-side interactivity and dynamic content
     Explanation: JavaScript enables dynamic and interactive web content on the client side.